Last CPT practice test reviews: Practice Test NASM dumps
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NEW QUESTION # 101
What is the first type of endurance a general fitness client must develop to be physically fit?
- A. Flexibility
- B. Muscular Strength
- C. Muscular Endurance
- D. Cardiorespiratory Conditioning
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 102
A trainer is working with a client who is planning to begin a weekly exercise plan within the next month. The trainer should identify that the client is in which of the following stages of change?
- A. Action
- B. Contemplation
- C. Preparation
- D. Maintenance
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the Stages of Change Model, NASM defines Preparation as: "The client intends to act in the near future, usually within the next month". This stage is characterized by having a clear plan and intent to begin behavior change soon, possibly with some minor steps already taken (e.g., buying workout clothes or scheduling sessions). In this scenario, the client is "planning to begin a weekly exercise plan within the next month," which exactly matches the preparation stage definition.
By contrast, Contemplation is thinking about starting in the next 6 months, Action is actively performing the new behavior (within the last 6 months), and Maintenance is sustaining the behavior for more than 6 months.
NEW QUESTION # 103
What is an appropriate assessment for testing muscular endurance?
- A. 1RM bench press test
- B. Zigzag test
- C. 3-minute step test
- D. Pushup test
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 104
Stabilization-level reactive exercises are designed to improve which of the following?
- A. The amortization phase
- B. Rate of force production
- C. Neuromuscular efficiency
- D. Prime mover strength
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stabilization-level reactive (plyometric) exercises in the OPT model are designed to improve neuromuscular efficiency, which NASM defines as the ability of the nervous system to coordinate muscles to produce force, reduce force, and stabilize in all planes of motion.
These exercises (e.g., squat jump with stabilization, box jump-down with stabilization) focus on proper landing mechanics, balance, and posture, rather than maximum power output.
While rate of force production (Option C) and amortization phase improvements occur in higher training phases, Phase 1 reactive training is about enhancing control and coordination. Prime mover strength (Option A) is not the primary goal here. Therefore, the correct answer is neuromuscular efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following is the next phase in the integrated performance paradigm after forces are reduced eccentrically?
- A. Stabilize isometrically
- B. Produce isotonically
- C. Stabilize eccentrically
- D. Produce concentrically
Answer: A
Explanation:
NASM's Integrated Performance Paradigm outlines three sequential phases of efficient movement:
Reduce force eccentrically (control and decelerate)
Stabilize isometrically (hold position to maintain control and alignment) Produce force concentrically (accelerate in the intended direction).
The isometric stabilization phase occurs immediately after the eccentric phase and before concentric acceleration. For example, in a jump, the body first absorbs impact forces eccentrically, then stabilizes to maintain proper alignment and readiness for propulsion, and finally explosively extends joints concentrically to lift off.
The isometric stabilization stage is critical for joint integrity, muscle coordination, and injury prevention, as it allows the neuromuscular system to prepare for the next movement phase. Therefore, following the eccentric force reduction in the performance paradigm, the next step is to stabilize isometrically.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following is required to maintain certification status?
- A. Earn 2 CEUs every 2 years.
- B. Re-take the certification exam.
- C. Publish work in peer reviewed journals.
- D. Attend a national conference.
Answer: A
Explanation:
NASM requires certified personal trainers to complete 2.0 continuing education units (CEUs) every two years to maintain certification. This must include at least 1.9 CEUs from continuing education activities and 0.1 CEU from renewing CPR/AED certification. The Study Guide's professional development section stresses that "continuing education courses are not just necessary for recertification; they can teach fitness professionals how to work with niche populations and enable business growth." Retaking the exam, attending conferences, or publishing research are optional career development activities but not mandatory for certification renewal. Meeting the CEU requirement ensures trainers stay current with best practices and maintain professional competency.
NEW QUESTION # 107
The NFPT-recommended recovery heart rate for a client with a size/strength goal is
- A. 115 BPM
- B. 140 BPM
- C. 125 BPM
- D. 100 beats per minute (BPM)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following muscle types acts as a prime mover?
- A. Agonist
- B. Antagonist
- C. Synergist
- D. Stabilizer
Answer: A
Explanation:
In NASM terminology, the agonist is the prime mover - the muscle most responsible for generating the main force in a movement. For example, in a squat, the gluteus maximus is an agonist for hip extension. The CPT7 Study Guide explains that while synergists assist and stabilizers hold posture, the agonist drives the movement. Antagonists oppose the prime mover to control motion and allow coordinated action. Correct identification of agonists is critical for program design and targeting specific adaptations .
NEW QUESTION # 109
A trainer is instructing a client about performing an OHSA. Which of the following should the trainer include?
- A. "Start by raising your arms over your head with your elbows fully extended."
- B. "Start by placing your hands on your hips with your elbows bent."
- C. "Start by crossing your arms over your chest."
- D. "Start by extending your arms forward and parallel with the floor."
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Overhead Squat Assessment (OHSA) is a key movement screening tool in NASM's assessment protocol.
The proper starting position requires the client to stand with feet shoulder-width apart, pointing straight ahead, and arms raised directly overhead with elbows fully extended. This position places the shoulders in full flexion and challenges the client's ability to maintain posture through the kinetic chain during the squat. The Study Guide specifies that this alignment allows observation of compensations in the ankles, knees, hips, LPHC, and shoulders. Starting with arms forward, crossed, or on the hips would not adequately test upper extremity and spinal stability in relation to lower-body mechanics, and would reduce the assessment's diagnostic value.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A client who uses the erector spinae to perform a hip extension is exhibiting which of the following?
- A. Autogenic inhibition
- B. Reciprocal inhibition
- C. Neuromuscular efficiency
- D. Synergistic dominance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Synergistic dominance occurs when synergist muscles compensate for a weak or inhibited prime mover, taking over its primary function. In this case, the erector spinae-normally a spinal stabilizer-are performing hip extension instead of the gluteus maximus, which is the prime mover for that action.
The NASM CPT7 Study Guide explains that altered length-tension relationships and poor neuromuscular recruitment patterns can cause helper muscles to dominate, leading to inefficient movement and potential injury.
This is distinct from reciprocal inhibition (agonist-antagonist relationship), autogenic inhibition (GTO- mediated relaxation), and neuromuscular efficiency (optimal recruitment patterns).
NEW QUESTION # 111
Functional units of skeletal muscle that occur in repeating segments along the myofibril are called
- A. Sarcomeres
- B. Motor units
- C. Filaments
- D. Myocytes
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following is a movement of the scapula?
- A. Pronation
- B. Extension
- C. Supination
- D. Protraction
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 113
Self-myofascial release will decrease the excitation of which of the following?
- A. Myosin heads
- B. Golgi tendon organs
- C. Muscle spindles
- D. Sarcomeres
Answer: C
Explanation:
Self-myofascial release (SMR) is a flexibility technique that uses tools like foam rollers to apply gentle, sustained pressure to the myofascial tissues. According to NASM, this technique "stimulates the Golgi tendon organ (GTO), which in turn inhibits muscle spindle activity, decreasing excitation and allowing the muscle to relax." Muscle spindles are sensory receptors sensitive to changes in muscle length and the rate of that change; they trigger reflexive contractions when they detect rapid stretch. Overactivity of muscle spindles can contribute to tightness and restricted range of motion. SMR works by initiating autogenic inhibition, allowing the targeted muscle to lengthen more effectively. The other options-Golgi tendon organs (inhibited by SMR stimulation), sarcomeres (the contractile units in muscle fibers), and myosin heads (part of the actin-myosin sliding filament mechanism)-are not directly the structures whose excitation is reduced by SMR. Therefore, the correct answer is that SMR decreases excitation of muscle spindles.
NEW QUESTION # 114
The Overload Training Principle is also referred to as the
- A. Specific Adaptation Principle
- B. Intensity Progression Principle
- C. Progressive Adaptation Principle
- D. Ceiling Effect Principle
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which assessment method provides a measurement of body composition?
- A. Skin fold caliper test
- B. Functional Movement Screen
- C. Body weight test
- D. Hip to waist ratio measurement
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following is the greatest contributor to an increased cardiovascular risk profile?
- A. Being underweight
- B. Being sedentary
- C. Skipping meals
- D. High caffeine intake
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 117
A client demonstrates lower crossed syndrome. Which of the following muscles should be statically stretched?
- A. Gluteus maximus
- B. Rectus femoris
- C. Rectus abdominis
- D. Gluteus medius
Answer: B
Explanation:
Lower crossed syndrome (LCS) is a common postural distortion characterized by an anterior pelvic tilt, lumbar lordosis, and overactive/shortened hip flexors and erector spinae, with underactive gluteals and abdominals. The NASM CPT7 Study Guide identifies the rectus femoris-part of the quadriceps and a hip flexor-as one of the shortened muscles in LCS.
Static stretching is recommended for overactive muscles to restore proper length-tension relationships. The gluteus maximus and medius are typically underactive in LCS and should be strengthened, not stretched. The rectus abdominis is usually lengthened and underactive. Therefore, in LCS, the rectus femoris should be statically stretched.
NEW QUESTION # 118
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